The bible lays out a series of 7 baptisms, called in Heb. 6:2 the doctrine of baptisms. The problem arises when you look at Ephesians 4:5, it says "one baptism".
The 7 baptisms are as follows:
1. The baptism unto Moses (1 Cor 10:2) Moses means drawn out of water (Exod. 2:10).
2. The baptism of repentance by John (Matt 3:11, Mark 1:4, Acts 19:1-6)
3. The baptism into death (Romans 6:3-4, Mt. 20:22-3, Luke 12:50, Mark 10:39, Col.2:12)
4. The baptism BY the Spirit into the body of Christ (1 Cor 12:13, Gal 3:27)
5. The baptism WITH the Holy Ghost by Jesus Christ (Matt.3:11, Acts 1:5,8, 2:4, 8:15-17, 10:44-48, 11:15-17, 19:1-6)
6. The baptism with water of a Christian (Mt.28:19, Acts 19:1-6, 8:12, 36-37 {which the new bibles corrupt} 1 Pet.3:21 {also corrupted}
7. The baptism with fire (Matt 3:10-12, 2 Thess.1:8-9, Isa.66:15-16)
The baptism unto Moses’ and John’s baptism were both figures. That was because the law was given by Moses and until John (Matt.11:13, Luke 16:16, John 1:17) Moses baptism was corporate where John’s was individual. The Christians water baptism is also a figure (1 pet. 3:21), and it is the same figure as the flood of Noah. It was God’s terrible judgment upon Jesus Christ, on the cross and us crucified with him. This is testified in the Psalms (18:16, 69:1-2, 14-15, 88:6-7, 16-17) and in Jonah (2:2-6) among other places (Lam.1:12-13). The world was crucified (Gal.6:14) as Noah’s day, and Pharoah’s army, and Jesus Christ took away the sin of the world (Jn 1:29). We also were crucified with him (Gal.2:20), buried with him by baptism into death (Rom.6).
This same judgment of Gods wrath, which Jesus took upon the cross God will cause all nations to drink of it (Matt 26:39, Rev 14:10, 16:19, Psalm 60:3, Isaiah 51:17, 22, 63:6, Jer. 25:15-17, 28, 49:12, Job 21:20). Jesus will execute that judgment upon the wicked; this is the baptism with fire.
Interestingly salvation baptism is 3, which are 1. We were buried with Christ by the baptism of death. When you first believe in Christ, you are then baptized by the Spirit (resurrection), into the body of Christ, and Jesus Christ baptizes with the Holy Ghost, to manifest the gifts of the Spirit. A Christian, already born again, then gets water baptized as a figure. Which gives them the answer of a good conscience toward God, which a Christian exercises himself in (Acts 24:16) in all things. And water (h20) does nothing for the filth of the flesh (1 Pet.3:21, 2 Cor 7:1), that is done by the baptism of death, wherein our flesh is crucified with Christ.
The ‘one baptism’ in water (Eph.4:5) is in the name of the Father, Son and Holy Ghost (Mt.28:19). The baptism of salvation is accomplished by God the Father, the Son, and the Holy Ghost. That’s why it is three which are one, like God (1 Jn 5:7) God the Father baptized us unto death in Jesus Christ on the cross 2000 yrs ago, resurrection has us receiving the Spirit who baptizes us into the body of Christ (Rom.6:3-6, 8:11, 1 Cor 12:13). This is the new birth of John 3, and 1 Pet.1:23 with Jn.7:38-9 & 20:21-2. Then, Jesus Christ baptizes with the Holy Ghost. (Matt.3:11, Acts 1:5,8, 2:4, 8:15-17, 10:44-48, 11:15-17, 19:1-6). Notice quickly that it is not the baptism with the Holy Ghost and fire ! Matt 3:11 speaking of the "and fire" is fire of judgment (see Matt. 3:10-12) The believers (his wheat) receive the baptism with the Holy Ghost, and unbelievers (chaff) receive the fire. This is why Jesus doesn't quote that part to the Apostles in Acts 1:5, nor did Peter in Acts 11:15-16. It wasn't for them. It is not cloven tongues like as of fire in Acts 2:3, it is actual fire at the 2nd coming- see Isaiah 66:15,16, Malachi 4:1, 2 Thessalonians 1:7-9
Next, is the distinction between the baptism 'with' the Holy Ghost, and the baptism 'by' the Spirit. The demonstration of this difference is found in several passages, the first being Acts 2. They were baptized 'with' the Holy Ghost (Acts 1:5,8, 11:16), after they were baptized 'by' the Spirit into the body of Christ. They had received the Holy Ghost (Jn 20:22) after Christs resurrection (Romans 6:5, 8:11 with Ephes.2:1) and were born again (1 Jn 4:15, 5:1) by the Spirit (1 Peter 1:3, Luke 24:45 with Jn.14:26, 16:13). The Holy Ghost was given after Christ had been glorified (John 7:39 with 1 Corinth. 15:42-44) so the disciples would be justified by his resurrection (Rom.4:25) by the Spirit (1 Cor. 6:11). And become members of the body of Christ (1 Cor 12:13). The mystery of the body (Eph.3:3-6) of Christ, and the cutting off of the Jews (Rom.11:25) brings in the doctrine of being born again by the Spirit into the body (Eph. 5:31-32, 1Cor 6:17). So by the resurrection of Christ from the dead, believers in Christ are born of the Spirit ( Jn 3:6-7) and receive power to become the sons of God (Jn 1:12), and members of the body of Christ by the baptism 'by' the Spirit, and are made to drink into one Spirit (1 Cor.12:13). But by the ascension of Christ, he baptizes us 'with' the Holy Ghost (Acts 2:33). This is to manifest the gifts of the Spirit (1 Cor. 12:7, Eph 4:10-11).
Example 1 is seen in Christ, after his baptism by John. He was God Almighty in the flesh (1 Tim. 3:16, 1 JN 4:2), but began ministering after the Holy Ghost came upon him, and the gifts of the Spirit were then manifested (Mt 3:16, Lk 4:14, 18). Likewise with believers, they may have God dwelling in them (Rom.8:9-11), and then have the Spirit of God come upon them (Acts 1:8, 2:4) to manifest the gifts of the Spirit, or to demonstrate the Spirit and power (1 Cor 2:4). So Acts 1, and 2 give several terms describing this, 'baptized with', 'receive power', 'Holy Ghost is come upon you' (1:5,8). They were all 'filled with the Holy Ghost', 'I will pour out of my Spirit', 'shed forth this', 'receive the gift of the Holy Ghost', 'the promise', 'endued with power'(2:4, 18,19, 33,38-39,w/Lk 24:49)
Example 2 of this is Acts 8. The Samaritans received the word of God, believed and were baptized, and were saved (8:12,14,16 Mark 16:16). But the Holy Ghost was fallen upon none of them (v16), although he dwelt in them as sons of God (1 JN 4:15, 5:1), they had not received the Holy Ghost (8:15). This occurred through the laying on of the apostles hands (v17-18). The demonstration of the Spirit and power was revealed, so much that they 'saw' something. Probably speaking with tongues and prophesying (Acts 10:46, 19:6), as in Acts 2, where it was said they saw, and heard (2:33) speaking with other tongues (2:4) and prophesying (2:16-18).
Example 3 is in Acts 19:1-6. Certain disciples of John, whom Paul found and persuaded to believe on the Lord Jesus Christ (v4,5) and be baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus, received the Holy Ghost and spake with tongues and prophesied (v6). This was after they had been born of God, Paul laid his hands upon them and the Holy Ghost "came on them". This is another example of believers receiving the Holy Ghost; which referred to the Holy Ghost coming upon them after they had believed on Christ.
Now we will look at the verses some use to teach water baptismal regeneration. And explain what they really say:
Acts 2:38- Repent and be baptized...for the remission of sins. The verse by itself would appear to teach regeneration by water baptism. But I could use Matt 19:21, and say that if you don't sell all you have you won't be perfect nor have treasure in heaven. Or I could use Acts 16:31 to say that all you have to do is 'Believe on the Lord Jesus Christ and thou shalt be saved'. I told a woman once that to be born again you had to believe that Jesus was the Christ (1 Jn 5:1), she responded with ' It isn't that easy'! Really (2 Cor 11:3)?
Anyway, Lets look at it. Does this verse Acts 2:38 prove that water baptism remitted their sins? Well John the Baptist's baptism was said to have been given for 'the remission of sins' (Mk.1:4). The law of Moses declared 'without the shedding of blood is no remission' Heb 9:22, Lev. 17:11. So which is it? Obviously all agree it is the blood of Jesus Christ (Heb 10:17-18, Col. 1:14). Baptism onlyist say that you get the blood of Jesus through water baptism. They say you are buried with him and risen again by water baptism. One water baptism onlyist told me that taking up the cross, was water baptism. Dying with Christ and rising again in the water. He’d never read Luke 9:23- “take up his cross daily”.
If we apply their same interpretation to the rest of the verse, a man would not receive the 'gift of the Holy Ghost' until he had been water baptized. Is that the case in Acts 10:44-48? No, they received the like gift (Acts 11:17) of the Holy Ghost as those at Pentecost, before they were baptized in water! It doesn't fit there. How about Acts 8:35-39? Phillip would not baptize the Eunuch until his sins were forgiven! He asked what would hinder him to be baptized, and Phillip made sure he believed with all his heart (v37). We know that with the heart man believeth unto righteousness (Rom. 10:10). And with the mouth confession is made unto salvation! He confessed with his mouth and said "I believe that Jesus Christ is the Son of God"! According to John, he had God dwelling in him (1 Jn. 4:15) that moment and was born again (1 Jn 5:1), because God had revealed that to him (Matt.16:16-17). So he had to be born of God before Phillip would baptize him in water. So their interpretation doesn't fit there either. Also in Acts 8:12- But when they believed Philip preaching the things concerning the kingdom of God, and the name of Jesus Christ, they were baptized, both men and women. Well what happened to the ones that heard Peter's words? "Then they that gladly received his word were baptized" (2:41). They gladly received his word before they were baptized. What does that mean? As many as received him (Jesus Christ) to them gave he (God) POWER TO BECOME THE SONS OF GOD even to them that believe on his name (John 1:11-13), which were born of God ! According to John again, they were born of God before they were baptized in water ! Is receiving the word enough to be saved? According to James and Peter it is able enough to save the soul (James 1:21, 1 Pet. 1:23). If you still insist on Acts 2:38 being the pattern for salvation, you are forced to conclude it is only the pattern for those in Acts 2. And God had other patterns in other places in Acts. It doesn't fit with the rest of the bible. It does appear to teach that if you isolate the verse from the rest of the bible, (also known as ‘private interpretation’ 2 Pet.1:21). But if you wanted to do that you could conclude Johns Baptism washed Israel’s sins away (Mk 1:4) and they needed no more sacrifice for their sins (Heb. 10:1-2, 17-18). It is confusion.
Why did the bible say it the way it said it in Mark 1:4, and Acts 2:38? Well we can say that John was sent by God (Jn 1:6) to baptize the people of Israel. To refuse to be baptized was to reject the counsel of God (Lk. 7:29-30). A man therefore could say that if you weren't baptized by John your sins would not be forgiven. And still say that John’s baptism did not remit your sins. Both were true- it was an action motivated by faith (Heb.11). Same with Acts 2:38 if they had refused to be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ, they would not have had their sins forgiven nor received the gift of the Holy Ghost. That did not mean that baptism washed their sins away and made them able to receive the Holy Ghost. It would have been evidence that they did not believe God. Faith is what pleases God (Heb. 11:6), and justifies sinners (Gal. 2:16) without any works of the law. Works are the fruit of regeneration (Jn 15:4-5), and water baptism was a fruit (work) meet for repentance (Matt. 3:8, Acts 26:20) as an act of faith. You could mount a ton of verses to prove a man is justified by faith without works (Rom. 4:2-8, 11:6, Gal. 2:16-21, 3:10-14, 21-25 etc.) but the point of bible study is not to turn some verses against others, but harmonize them according to the law of contradiction (Heb.7:7). It is a whole other doctrine to prove technically what happens the moment you believe. But, why God requires water baptism, is evidently not to wash away sins, or put away the filth of the flesh, it is to give one the answer of a good conscience toward God (1 Pet. 3:21)
John 3:3-Except a man be born of water and of the the Spirit, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God. Water is not physical H2O in John 4:10,14, or 7:38-39. Therefore it does not have to be H2O as the water onlyists suggest. Now 1 Peter 1:23 says we are born again by the word of God. John 15:3 says we are clean through the word. James 1:18,21 says we are begotten with the word of truth. 1 Cor 4:15 has us begotten by the gospel of Jesus Christ. And Ephesians 5:26 says that the washing of water is by the word. Galatians 4 has us born again by the "word of promise"(Rom.9:9) in verse 23, 26, 28-29, 31. So why can't John 3:5 be the water of the word of God? I think it can, and it is!
Acts 22:16- This is the most blatant corruption, as they drop the last part of the verse when they quote it. It says 'arise and be baptized, and wash away thy sins, calling on the name of the Lord.' However they usually quote it like this, ''arise and be baptized, and wash away thy sins". Very dishonest, don't you think? If they can connect the washing away of sins on being baptized, then I can with as much authority as they have with that single text, say the washing away of sins is from calling on the name of the Lord. This fits better when you look at Romans 10:13-15. It says that whosoever calls upon the name of the Lord shall be saved. Annanias was sent to Paul by Jesus (Acts 22:12, 9:10-12) to preach to him as Romans 10:15 says. Paul hears and calls upon the name of the Lord (Acts 22:16) as Romans 10:13-14 says. So they cannot use this verse either.
1 Peter 3:21- They love this verse as well, at least the first part of it (again). It says 'baptism doth also now save us' They tie this verse up with Mark 16:16 ' he that believeth and is baptized shall be saved', and appear at first glance to have something. Real quickly let’s establish that 'saved' and 'salvation' is not always a reference to being born again or having your sins forgiven. Here are some examples: Romans 13:11, 1 Tim. 2:15, 4:16, 2 Cor 1:6, Eph. 6:17, Phil. 2:12, Romans 1:16 w/ 1 Cor 1:18. So make sure you know what you’re looking at. Example 1 Pet. 3:21, the salvation here is not sins washed away. It says "not the putting away of the filth of the flesh"! It is the answer of a good conscience towards God. Exercising ourselves to have a good conscience toward God is done continually -Acts 24:16, 23:1, 2 Cor 1:12, 2 Tim. 1:3. Baptism is part of that. It strengthens your conscience. Mark 16:16 is a true statement; a person who believes and is baptized will be saved, not will get saved. It is a state of salvation not a path to salvation. And it does not say that water baptism washes away your sins or that water baptism causes you to pass from death unto life (Jn.5:24). Mark 16:16 therefore isn't proof that water washes sins away, especially since the same verse says 'he that believeth not shall be damned'. In 1 Peter 3 the passage says that “eight souls were saved by water” (v20) and we know God “saved Noah the eighth person, a preacher of righteousness” (2 Pt.2:5). So God saved those who were righteous already by faith- Noah was a just man and perfect in his generations, and Noah walked with God (Gen.6:8-9). He was saved from the present evil world by the flood- he “saved Noah…bringing in the flood upon the world of the ungodly” (2 Pt.2:5). Heb.11:7 By faith Noah, being warned of God of things not seen as yet, moved with fear, prepared an ark to the saving of his house; by the which he condemned the world, and became heir of the righteousness which is by faith. Righteous Noah was saved from the old world by the waters of the flood.
Here are some verses to throw to them to explain. Since they claim Paul’s sins were washed away by water, you can ask them why Paul didn't think as highly of water baptism as they do. Look at 1 Corinthians 1:14-18. Paul was actually thankful that he didn't baptize very many of the Corinthians. However he begat (new birth, born again) them by the gospel, and said he was their father in the faith (1 Cor.4:15), but didn't baptize but a few of them (v14-17). And Crispus, the chief ruler of the synagogue, believed on the Lord with all his house; and many of the Corinthians hearing believed, and were baptized. Because Christ didn't send him to water baptize but cause men to believe the gospel- Rom.1:16! What? If that is what regenerates you why was he thankful he didn't baptize? Why didn't Christ send him to baptize if that is the path to salvation? So, when you look at the word baptism in the bible it isn't always water baptism! Knowing this messes up the rest of their arguments. Rom. 6, Gal. 3:27, Col. 2:12, 1 Cor 12:13 are not water baptism.
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